I have a question about the Exercise Of Voting Rights by Shareholders.
I want to know what happens to the shares that shareholders use to vote on corporate matters. Do they have to purchase shares on the market in order to exercise their voting rights or do they just go back into the number of freely traded shares that are available.
Do they have to sell those shares that they had already purchased as voting rights?
I am unsure???
They are the same before and after the vote, at the "owners" disposal. There is usually a stipulation that the shares actually be recorded with the owners name to be allowed to vote.
What do you mean when you say They Are The Same??
Basically what I am trying to figure out is if they effect the share price in a positive or negative way or if they do not effect the price at all when they are excersiced
No, just like voting in your precinct doesnt affect property tax..
Join now or log in to leave a comment